[Aug-2022 Newly Released] NCLEX-RN Exam Questions For You To Pass
NCLEX NCLEX-RN Exam: Basic Questions With Answers
Understand the objectives of the NCLEX-RN exam.
The objective of the NCLEX-RN® certification is to test your ability to use critical thinking skills to make nursing judgments. This is a much different type of testing than what you have done in nursing school. Nursing schools test your knowledge of the nursing process. They want to know if you have learned all the nursing terms. On the NCLEX-RN® exam, they want to see if you have learned to apply the nursing knowledge you learned in school to the nursing process. Improvement of knowledge and retention of information on the NCLEX-RN exam is based on how well you answered questions. NCLEX-RN Dumps tests your knowledge and understanding. Aid material helps you learn new concepts and retain information that you learned in school. Knowledge like textbooks are no longer used for this test. It's not enough to memorize the answer to every question.
You must understand the concept behind the question and know the answers to all questions. That is what you are tested on the NCLEX-RN exam. Pool of questions is important because it means that there are questions you have not seen before. Links between topics are also important. Questions in one topic might be related to questions in another topic. Training your brain to recognize this can help you identify those questions and prepare for them. Exam cram is not as important as knowing what to study for. You must know the content of the exam.
To be licensed as a registered nurse in the United States, you must meet the following requirements:
Have passed the NCLEX exam.
Be a citizen of the U.S.
Have been registered to practice as an entry-level nurse.
Be in good health.
Get to know about the target audience of the NCLEX-RN Exam
The target audience of the NCLEX-RN exam is those nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam. The nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam need to be aware of the exam syllabus and the important points in it. This is the first step in your preparation for NCLEX-RN exam. Cram the study guide with the relevant content and study it thoroughly. Puncture and laceration is another important area of knowledge that you need to know well. Practice the NCLEX-RN sample questions and answers as many times as possible. The study guide provides you with all the information you need to pass your NCLEX-RN exam. You will need to focus more on the study guide. Weight gain is a very common problem among the nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam. Policy and procedure is another important point that needs to be known well before you start the preparation. Textbooks and notes are the two most important sources of information for you in the NCLEX-RN exam. Exam sources such as flashcards, practice exams and question papers will help you prepare for the NCLEX-RN Dumps. Question bank is another important source of information for the nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam. You can use it as an effective resource of information to pass your NCLEX-RN exam.
NEW QUESTION 101
Stat serum electrolytes ordered for a client in acute renal failure revealed a serum potassium level of 6.4. The physician is immediately notified and orders 50 mL of dextrose and 10 U of regular insulin IV push. The nurse administering these drugs knows the Rationale for this therapy is to:
- A. Drive potassium from the serum back into the cells
- B. Protect the myocardium from the effects of hypokalemia
- C. Promote rapid protein catabolism
- D. Remove the potassium from the body by renin exchange
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), a cation exchange resin, exchanges sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine reducing the serum potassium. (B) Calcium is administered to protect the myocardium from the adverse effects of hyperkalemia. Serum levels reflect hyperkalemia. (C) Rapid catabolism releases potassium from the body tissue into the bloodstream. Infection and hyperthermia increase the process of catabolism. (D) The administration of dextrose and regular insulin IV forces potassium back into the cells decreasing the potassium in the serum.
NEW QUESTION 102
A 16-year-old client comes to the prenatal clinic for her monthly appointment. She has gained 14 lb from her
7th to 8th month; her face and hands indicate edema. She is diagnosed as having PIH and referred to the high- risk prenatal clinic. The client's weight increase is most likely due to:
- A. Obesity prior to conception
- B. Hypertension due to kidney lesions
- C. Overeating and subsequent obesity
- D. Fluid retention
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set B
Explanation
Explanation:
(A) Overeating can lead to obesity, but not to edema. (B) There is no indication of obesity prior to pregnancy.
PIH is more prevalent in the underweight than in the obese in this age group. (C) Hypertension can be due to kidney lesions, but it would have been apparent earlier in the pregnancy. (D) The weight gain in PIH is due to the retention of sodium ions and fluid and is one of the three cardinal symptoms of PIH.
NEW QUESTION 103
The nurse is assisting a 4th-day postoperative cholecystectomy client in planning her meals for tomorrow's menu. Which vitamin is the most essential in promoting tissue healing?
- A. Vitamin B1
- B. Vitamin A
- C. Vitamin D
- D. Vitamin C
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is essential in promoting wound healing and collagen formation. (B) Vitamin B1 (thiamine) maintains normal gastrointestinal (GI) functioning, oxidizes carbohydrates, and is essential for normal functioning of nervous tissue. (C) Vitamin D regulates absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the GI tract and helps prevent rickets. (D) Vitamin A is necessary for the formation and maintenance of skin and mucous membranes. It is also essential for normal growth and development of bones and teeth.
NEW QUESTION 104
The healthcare team determines that an elderly client has had progressive changes in memory over the last 2 years that have interfered with her personal, social, or occupational functioning. Her memory, learning, attention, and judgment have all been affected in some way. These symptoms describe which of the following conditions?
- A. Dementia
- B. Parkinsonism
- C. Delirium
- D. Mania
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) These changes are common characteristics of dementia. (B) Parkinson's disease affects the muscular system. Progressive memory changes are not presenting symptoms. (C) Delirium includes an altered level of consciousness, which is not found in dementia. (D) Mania includes symptoms of hyperactivity, flight of ideas, and delusions of grandeur.
NEW QUESTION 105
To prevent thrombophlebitis in a client on complete bed rest, the nursing care plan should include:
- A. Keep the client's legs extended and discourage any movement.
- B. Massage the client's calves briskly every shift.
- C. Have the client tighten and relax leg muscles several times daily.
- D. Dangle the client's legs over the edge of the bed every shift.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Dangling the client's legs over the edge of the bed will contribute to stasis and pooling of blood and increases the risk of thrombus formation. (B) Massaging the client's calves could result in dislodging an embolus. (C) Decreased movement will contribute to pooling of blood and increased risk of venous thrombosis. (D) Tightening and relaxing leg muscles increases circulation and decreases the risk of venous thrombosis.
NEW QUESTION 106
Provide the 1-minute Apgar score for an infant born with the following findings:
* Heart rate: Above 100
* Respiratory effort: Slow, irregular
* Muscle tone: Some flexion of extremities
* Reflex irritability: Vigorous cry Color: Body pink, blue extremities
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set A
Explanation:
(A) Seven out of a possible perfect score of 10 is correct. Two points are given for heart rate above 100; 1 point is given for slow, irregular respiratory effort; 1 point is given for some flexion of extremities in assessing muscle tone; 2 points are given for vigorous cry in assessing reflex irritability; 1 point is assessed for color when the body is pink with blue extremities (acrocyanosis). (B) For a perfect Apgar score of 10, the infant would have a heart rate over 100 but would also have a good cry, active motion, and be completely pink. (C) For an Apgar score of 8 the respiratory rate, muscle tone, or color would need to fall into the 2-point rather than the 1-point category. (D) For this infant to receive an Apgar score of 9, four of the areas evaluated would need ratings of 2 points and one area, a rating of 1 point.
NEW QUESTION 107
An 8-year-old boy has been diagnosed with hemophilia. Which of the following diagnostic blood studies is characteristically abnormal in this disorder?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Complete blood count
- C. Bleeding time
- D. Partial thromboplastin time
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Partial thromboplastic time measures activity of thromboplastin, which depends on the intrinsic clotting factors deficient in children who are hemophiliacs. (B) Platelet counts are normal in hemophilia. (C) Hemophilia does not affect the complete blood count. (D) Bleeding times are normal in hemophiliacs. They measure the time interval for the bleeding from small superficial wounds to cease.
NEW QUESTION 108
A female client is concerned that she is in a "high-risk" group for the development of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). She wants to know about the advisability of donating blood. Which of the following responses is correct?
- A. "You should not donate since it takes time to develop antibodies to the AIDS virus. If you donate blood before you develop the antibody, you could pass it on in the blood."
- B. "It's OK for you to donate because the blood bank has a test that is 100% effective."
- C. "Individuals who donate blood are at risk of getting the AIDS virus. You should not donate."
- D. "It is not a good idea for you to donate. If you have AIDS, the information is made public and could destroy your personal life."
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The AIDS virus cannot be transmitted to the donor through the blood donation procedure. (B) The test for the AIDS virus is not absolutely foolproof; therefore, it is not wise for a person with known risk factors to donate blood. (C) It takes time for antibodies to the AIDS virus to develop. An infected individual could donate contaminated blood without it testing positive for the virus. (D) For reasons of confidentiality, information about individuals infected with AIDS is not made public.
NEW QUESTION 109
In working with a manipulative client, which of the following nursing interventions would be most appropriate?
- A. Bargaining with the client as a strategy to control the behavior
- B. Providing a consistent set of guidelines and rules
- C. Redirecting the client
- D. Assigning the client to different staff persons each day
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This answer is incorrect. Bargaining is a manipulative act, which the nurse could expect from the client.
(B) This answer is incorrect. Confrontation is an effective nursing strategy with manipulative behavior.
Redirection is appropriate for the client who is out of touch with reality. (C) This answer is correct.
Manipulative clients must abide by consistent rules. (D) This answer is incorrect. Manipulation is kept at a minimum if the same staff person is assigned to the client. Often the client will attempt to play staff persons against each other.
NEW QUESTION 110
A 30-year-old client has a history of several recent traumatic experiences. She presents at the physician's office with a complaint of blindness. Physical exam and diagnostic testing reveal no organic cause. The nurse recognizes this as:
- A. Conversion
- B. Hallucination
- C. Delusion
- D. Illusion
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The client's blindness is real. Delusion is a false belief. (B) Illusion is the misrepresentation of a real, external sensory experience. (C) Hallucination is a false sensory perception involving any of the senses.
(D) Conversion is the expression of intrapsychic conflict through sensory or motor manifestations.
NEW QUESTION 111
A 58-year-old client on a general surgery unit is scheduled for transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) in 2 hours. The nurse explains to the client that this procedure means:
- A. Removal of prostate tissue by an open surgical approach through a low horizontal incision, bypassing the bladder, to the prostate gland
- B. Removal of prostate tissue by a resectoscope that is inserted through the penile urethra
- C. Removal of the prostate tissue by way of a lower abdominal midline incision through the bladder and into the prostate gland
- D. Removal of the prostate tissue by an open surgical approach through an incision between the ischial tuberosities, the scrotum, and the rectum
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This describes a suprapubic (transvesical) prostatectomy procedure. (B) This is the correct description of a TURP procedure. (C) This describes a perineal prostatectomy procedure. (D) This describes a retropubic (extravesical) prostatectomy procedure.
NEW QUESTION 112
For the past several months, an elderly female client with Alzheimer's disease has experienced paranoia; hallucinations; and aggressive, disruptive behavior. The family is utilizing haloperidol as needed to control her behavior. On nursing assessment, you note that the client demonstrates involuntary movements of the tongue and fingers. This may most likely indicate:
- A. Tardive dyskinesia, which may be a side effect of antipsychotic medication
- B. A more advanced stage of Alzheimer's disease than previously experienced by the client
- C. The need to change her medication from haloperidol to another antipsychotic drug to lessen symptoms
- D. Early symptoms of Parkinson's disease
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set E
Explanation:
(A) Tardive dyskinesia is a common side effect of antipsychotic medications such as haloperidol. Discontinuing the medication can alleviate symptoms. (B) Although mild tremors are an early sign of Parkinson's disease, haloperidol must be discontinued first and the client further evaluated. (C) These symptoms do not necessarily indicate a more advanced stage of Alzheimer's disease. (D) Most antipsychotic drugs are chemically similar and will produce the same side effects.
NEW QUESTION 113
A female client has been treated since childhood for mitral valve prolapse. The antibiotic of choice for her during pregnancy would be:
- A. Erythromycin
- B. Tetracycline
- C. Sulfa
- D. Hydralazine
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Sulfa is a teratogen and will cause kernicterus. (B) Tetracycline is a teratogen and will effect tooth development. (C) Hydralazine is not an antibiotic but a calcium channel blocker. (D) Erythromycin is safe during pregnancy and can be used when the client is allergic to penicillin.
NEW QUESTION 114
A client tells the nurse that she has had a history of urinary tract infections. The nurse would do further health teaching if she verbalizes she will:
- A. Limit her fluid intake after 6 PM so that there is not a great deal of urine in her bladder while she sleeps
- B. Drink at least 8 oz of cranberry juice daily
- C. Maintain a fluid intake of at least 2000 mL daily
- D. Wash her hands before and after voiding
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set B
Explanation:
(A) Cranberry juice helps to maintain urine acidity, thereby retarding bacterial growth. (B) A generous fluid intake will help to irrigate the bladder and to prevent bacterial growth within the bladder. (C) Hand washing is an effective means of preventing pathogen transmission. (D) Restricting fluid intake would contribute to urinary stasis, which in turn would contribute to bacterial growth.
NEW QUESTION 115
A 24-year-old woman who is gravida 1 reports, "I can't take iron pills because they make me sick." She continues, "My bowels aren't moving either." In counseling her based on these complaints, the nurse's most appropriate response would be, "It would be beneficial for you to eat . . .
- A. prunes."
- B. eggs."
- C. green leafy vegetables."
- D. red meat."
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Prunes provide fiber to decrease constipation and are an excellent source of dietary iron, as the prenatal client is not taking her supplemental iron and iron-deficiency anemia is common during pregnancy. (B) Green leafy vegetables provide a source of fiber and iron; however, prunes are a better source of both. (C) Red meat is a good iron source but will not address the constipation problem. (D) Eggs are a good iron source but do not address the constipation problem.
NEW QUESTION 116
The mother of a preschooler reports to the nurse that he frequently tells lies. The admission assessment of the child indicates possible child abuse. The nurse knows that his:
- A. Mother is lying to protect herself.
- B. Behavior is not normal, and a child psychiatrist should be consulted.
- C. Behavior indicates a developmental delay, because preschoolers should be able to tell right from wrong.
- D. Lying is normal behavior for a preschool child who is learning to separate fantasy from reality.
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Because preschoolers often tell "stories" as they learn to differentiate fantasy from reality, the child's behavior is normal. (B) The nurse has no reason to believe the child's mother is lying, because children of his age often tell lies. (C) The child's lying is actually "storytelling" as he learns to separate fantasy from reality, a normal developmental task for his age group. (D) The child's behavior is consistent with his age and does not indicate a developmental delay.
NEW QUESTION 117
A psychiatric client has been stabilized and is to be discharged. The nurse will recognize client insight and behavioral change by which of the following client statements?
- A. "If I have any side effects from my medicines, I will take an extra dose of Cogentin."
- B. "When I get home, I will need to take my medicines and call my therapist if I have any side effects or begin to hear voices."
- C. "As soon as I leave here, I'm throwing away my medicines. I never thought I needed them anyway."
- D. "When I get home, I should be able to taper myself off the Haldol because the voices are gone now."
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) The client verbalizes that he is responsible for compliance and keeping the treatment team member informed of progress. This behavior puts him at the lowest risk for relapse. (B) Noncompliance is a major cause of relapse. This statement reflects lack of responsibility for his own health maintenance. (C) This statement reflects lack of insight into the importance of compliance. (D) This statement reflects no insight into his illness or his responsibility in health maintenance.
NEW QUESTION 118
A client suspects that she is pregnant. She reports two missed menstrual periods. The first day of her last menstrual period was August 3. Her estimated date of confinement would be:
- A. November 7
- B. May 7
- C. November 10
- D. May 10
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Wrong calculation (B) Wrong calculation (C) Wrong calculation
(D) Nägele's rule is: Expected Date of Confinement = Last
Menstrual Period - 3 months + 7 days + 1 year
NEW QUESTION 119
The nurse assesses a client's monitor strip and finds the following: uterine contractions every 3-4 minutes, lasting 60-70 seconds; FHR baseline 134-146 bpm, with accelerations to 158 bpm with fetal movement. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?
- A. Start IV for fetal distress and administer O2 at 6-8 liters by mask.
- B. Notify physician of nonreassuring FHR pattern.
- C. Evaluate to see if the monitor strip is reassuring.
- D. Turn the client to her left side.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) These indices are within normal parameters; therefore, the nurse does not need to contact the physician. (B) The purpose of turning a client to her left side is to maximize uteroplacental blood flow. Based on the above assessment, there is no indication that blood flow is compromised. (C) These interventions are appropriate nursing interventions for late and prolonged decelerations. Following these interventions, the nurse should notify the physician. These indices are within normal parameters; therefore, the nurse does not need to start an IV and administer O2. (D) Variations of 20 bpm above or below the baseline FHR is considered normal. Normal FHRs range from 120-160 bpm. As the fetus moves, the FHR increases, and accelerations often occur in concert with contractions. During the active phase of labor, the frequency of uterine contractions is every 2-4 minutes, with an appropriate duration of 60 sec.
NEW QUESTION 120
A school-age child with asthma is ready for discharge from the hospital. His physician has written an order to continue the theophylline given in the hospital as an oral home medication. Immediately prior to discharge, he complains of nausea and becomes irritable. His vital signs were normal except for tachycardia. What first nursing actions would be essential in this situation?
- A. Hold the child's discharge for 1 hour.
- B. Notify the physician immediately.
- C. Administer an antiemetic as necessary.
- D. Discharge the child as the physician ordered.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) Holding the child's discharge alone does not address the client's problem. (B) Nausea, tachycardia, and irritability are all symptoms of theophylline toxicity. The physician should benotified immediately so that a serum theophylline level can be ordered. Theophylline dose should be withheld until the physician is notified. (C) The child must be evaluated for theophylline toxicity before any discharge. (D) Cause of the nausea should be investigated before the administration of an antiemetic.
NEW QUESTION 121
A client hospitalized with a medical diagnosis of adjustment disorder versus personality disorder states,
"Nobody cares about the clients." The nurse's most effective response would be:
- A. "How can you say that I don't care? We just met."
- B. "What makes you think the nurses don't care?"
- C. "You seem angry. Tell me more about how you feel."
- D. "You will feel differently about us in a few days."
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) This statement is a defensive response that places the nurse in a vulnerable countertransference position, and at the same time, fails to challenge the client's "splitting" behavior. (B) This statement is a defensive response by the nurse. In addition, this type of nontherapeutic statement requests that the client explains the reasons for her behavior, a difficult task for an individual with limited insight. (C) This statement is a nontherapeutic response that both ignores the intensity of the client's emotions and the dynamics underlying
"splitting" behavior. (D) By simultaneously acknowledging the client's emotional intensity and gently challenging her "splitting" behavior, the nurse addresses the client's current distortions and prepares for further interventions with angry or ambivalent feelings.
NEW QUESTION 122
A 16-year-old client reports a weight loss of 20% of her previous weight. She has a history of food binges followed by self-induced vomiting (purging). The nurse should suspect a diagnosis of:
- A. Anorexia hysteria
- B. Anorexia nervosa
- C. Conversion reaction
- D. Bulimia
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-starvation. (B) Anorexia hysteria is not a known disease or disorder. (C) Bulimia is characterized by food binges and self-induced vomiting. (D) Conversion reaction is a defense mechanism.
NEW QUESTION 123
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