2024 Realistic Verified NCLEX-RN exam dumps Q&As - NCLEX-RN Free Update
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NCLEX-RN exam is an important step in the process of becoming a registered nurse. After completing a nursing program, candidates must apply to their state board of nursing to take the exam. Once they pass the exam and meet other licensure requirements, they can practice as a registered nurse. NCLEX-RN exam is designed to ensure that only qualified individuals are licensed to practice nursing, which helps to protect the public and maintain the integrity of the nursing profession.
Discuss the key features of the exam.
There are several key features of the exam:
It is organized according to the nursing framework Meeting Client Needs.
It also tests your ability to make nursing judgments.
Essay Test: The essay test is an important component of the NCLEX-RN exam. The question is designed to test your ability to analyze situations and determine the best course of action. This is similar to the way you were trained during nursing school.
It tests your ability to apply the knowledge you learned in nursing school to the nursing process.
Written test: The written test is two hours long. This means that you will have four-and-a-half hours to complete the exam.
The Exam: There is a maximum number of questions you can answer in the NCLEX-RN exam. It is a multiple-choice test.
The test includes a clinical scenario.
NEW QUESTION # 187
A husband asks if he can visit with his wife on her ECT treatment days and what to expect after the initial treatment. The nurse's best response is:
- A. "Yes, you may visit. She may experience temporary drowsiness, confusion, or memory loss after each treatment."
- B. "You'll have to get permission from the physician to visit. Clients are pretty sick after the first treatment."
- C. "Visitors are not allowed. We will telephone you to inform you of her progress."
- D. "There's really no need to stay with her. She's going to sleep for several hours after the treatment."
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) It is within the nurse's realm of practice to grant visiting privileges according to hospital policy. ECT treatments do not make clients sick. (B) Visitors are allowed and encouraged, particularly family members.
(C) Clients are usually awake within 1 hour posttreatment. Drowsiness wanes as the anesthetic wears off.
(D) A family member is encouraged to stay with the client after return to the unit. The nurse has used an opportunity to do family teaching and allay fears by explaining temporary side effects of the treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 188
Pregnant women with diabetes often have problems related to the effectiveness of insulin in controlling their glucose levels during their second half of pregnancy. The nurse teaches the client that this is due to:
- A. Decreased progesterone levels
- B. Decreased glomerular filtration and increased tubular absorption
- C. Decreased estrogen levels
- D. Increased human placental lactogen levels
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) There is a rise in glomerular filtration rate in the kidneys in conjunction with decreased tubular glucose reabsorption, resulting in glycosuria. (B) Insulin is inhibited by increased levels of estrogen. (C) Insulin is inhibited by increased levels of progesterone. (D) Human placental lactogen levels increase later in pregnancy. This hormonal antagonist reduces
insulin's effectiveness, stimulates lipolysis, and increases the circulation of free fatty acids.
NEW QUESTION # 189
When teaching a mother of a 4-month-old with diarrhea about the importance of preventing dehydration, the nurse would inform the mother about the importance of feeding her child:
- A. Regular formulas mixed with electrolyte solutions
- B. Fruit juices
- C. Diluted carbonated drinks
- D. Soy-based, lactose-free formula
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Diluted fruit juices are not recommended for rehydration because they tend to aggravate the diarrhea. (B) Diluted soft drinks have a high-carbohydrate content, which aggravates the diarrhea. (C) Soy-based, lactose-free formula reduces stool output and duration of diarrhea in most infants. (D) Regular formulas contain lactose, which can increase diarrhea.
NEW QUESTION # 190
Nursing care of the infant prior to surgical closure of a meningomyelocele would include:
- A. Do not apply dressing; keep sac open to air
- B. Aspirate any fluid from sac
- C. Cover sac with dry sterile dressing
- D. Cover sac with saline-soaked sterile dressing
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) A dry, sterile dressing would adhere to the sac, causing tissue damage. (B) A saline-soaked sterile dressing protects the sac from contamination by air and prevents drying. (C) A sac open to air causes drying and potential for contamination. (D) This intervention is not an independent nursing action.
NEW QUESTION # 191
A 5-year-old child has suffered second-degree thermal burns over 30% of her body. Forty-eight hours after the burn injury, the nurse must begin to monitor the child for which one of the following complications?
- A. Severe hypotension
- B. Fluid volume excess
- C. Decreased cardiac output
- D. Fluid volume deficit
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Fluid volume deficit resulting from fluid shifts to the interstitial spaces occurs in the first 48 hours. (B) Forty-eight hours to 72 hours after the burn injury and fluid resuscitation, capillary permeability is restored and fluid requirements decrease. Interstitial fluid returns rapidly to the vascular compartment, and the nurse must monitor the child for signs and symptoms of hypervolemia. (C) Increased cardiac output results as fluids shift back to the vascular compartment. (D) Hypertension is the result of hypervolemia.
NEW QUESTION # 192
A client diagnosed with severe anemia is to receive 2 U of packed red blood cells. Prior to starting the blood transfusion, the nurse must:
- A. Have the registered nurse in charge assume responsibility for verifying the client and blood product information
- B. Take a baseline set of vital signs
- C. Use microdrip tubing for the blood administration
- D. Hang Ringer's lactate as the companion fluid
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) A baseline set of vital signs is necessary to determine if any transfusion reactions occur as the blood product is being administered. (B) The only companion fluid to be used during a blood transfusion is normal saline. The calcium in Ringer's lactate can cause clotting. (C) Only a blood administration set should be used. A microdrip tube would cause lysis of the red blood cells. (D) Proper identification of the recipient and the blood product must be validated by at least two people.
NEW QUESTION # 193
A client with cirrhosis of the liver becomes comatose and is started on neomycin 300 mg q6h via nasogastric tube. The rationale for this therapy is to:
- A. Decrease ammonia formation
- B. Prevent systemic infection
- C. Promote diuresis
- D. Acidify the small bowel
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Neomycin is an antibiotic, but this is not the Rationale for administering it to a client in hepatic coma.
(B) Diuretics and salt-free albumin are used to promote diuresis in clients with cirrhosis of the liver. (C) Neomycin destroys the bacteria in the intestines. It is the bacteria in the bowel that break down protein into ammonia. (D) Lactulose is administered to create an acid environment in the bowel. Ammonia leaves the blood and migrates to this acidic environment where it is trapped and excreted.
NEW QUESTION # 194
When assessing fetal heart rate status during labor, the monitor displays late decelerations with tachycardia and decreasing variability. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Turn client on right side.
- B. Report to physician or midwife.
- C. Decrease IV fluids.
- D. Continue monitoring because this is a normal occurrence.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This is not a normal occurrence. Late decelerations need prompt intervention for immediate infant recovery. (B) To increase O2 perfusion to the unborn infant, the mother should be placed on her left side.
(C) IV fluids should be increased, not decreased. (D) Immediate action is warranted, such as reporting findings, turning mother on left side, administering O2, discontinuing oxytocin (Pitocin), assessing maternal blood pressure and the labor process, preparing for immediate cesarean delivery, and explaining plan of action to client.
NEW QUESTION # 195
Four days after admission for cirrhosis of the liver, the nurse observes the following when assessing a male client: increased irritability, asterixis, and changes in his speech pattern. Which of the following foods would be appropriate for his bedtime snack?
- A. Saltine crackers and peanut butter
- B. A ham and cheese sandwich
- C. Fresh fruit
- D. A milkshake
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) High levels of ammonia, a by-product of protein metabolism, can precipitate metabolic encephalopathy.
These clients need a diet high in carbohydrates and bulk. (B) Metabolic encephalopathy of the brain associated with liver failure is precipitated by elevated ammonia levels. Ammonia is a by-product of protein metabolism.
(C, D) Metabolic encephalopathy in liver failure is precipitated by elevated ammonia levels. Ammonia is a by-product of protein metabolism.
NEW QUESTION # 196
A female client is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following signs indicate a possible pneumothorax?
- A. Bradypnea and bradycardia
- B. Increased breath sounds on the affected side
- C. Shortness of breath and sharp pain on the affected side
- D. Crackles or rales on the affected side
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set E
Explanation:
(A) With a pneumothorax, air occupies the pleural space. Crackles or rales are heard with increased fluid or secretions and would not be present with air in the space. (B) With a pneumothorax, the client would experience tachypnea and tachycardia to compensate for the decrease in oxygenation. (C) Symptoms of pneumothorax include shortness of breath, sharp pain on the affected side with movement or coughing, asymmetrical chest expansion, and diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side. (D) With a pneumothorax, breath sounds would be decreased on the affected side (indicates air in the pleural space).
NEW QUESTION # 197
A 49-year-old obese woman has been admitted to the general surgery unit with choledocholithiasis. As the nurse is admitting her to the unit, she states, "The doctor said I have stones that need to be removed; where are they?" The nurse knows that the best explanation for this is to tell her that:
- A. There are stones present in her common bile duct
- B. There are stones present in her kidneys
- C. There are stones present in her gallbladder
- D. There are no stones, but her gallbladder is irritated and caused her nausea, vomiting, and pain
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A)Cholelithiasisis the correct term used to describe the presence of stones in the gallbladder. (B) Nephrolithiasis,orrenal calculi,is the correct term used to describe the presence of stones in the kidney. (C) Choledocholithiasisis the correct term used to describe the presence of stones in the common bile duct.
(D)Cholecystitisis the correct term used to describe inflammation of the gallbladder and can be associated with cystic duct obstructions from impacted stones.
NEW QUESTION # 198
The nurse is interviewing a client with a diagnosis of possible abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following statements will be reflected in the client's chief complaint?
- A. "I don't remember anything in particular, I just haven't felt well."
- B. "My legs have been numb for three months."
- C. "I've been having a dull pain at the upper left shoulder."
- D. "I've only been urinating three times a day lately."
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A, B, C) These complaints are not specific signs and symptoms associated with abdominal aortic aneurysm. If symptoms are present, the aneurysm is expanding or rupture is imminent. (D) Many clients may experience no symptoms. The only symptom may be a pulsation noted in the abdomen in the reclining position.
NEW QUESTION # 199
A chronic alcoholic client's condition deteriorates, and he begins to exhibit signs of hepatic coma. Which of the following is an early sign of impending hepatic coma?
- A. Hiccups
- B. Anorexia
- C. Fetor hepaticus
- D. Mental confusion
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Hiccups are not a sign of impending hepatic coma. (B) Anorexia is not a sign of impending hepatic coma.
(C) One of the earliest symptoms of hepatic coma is mental confusion. Asterixis, a flapping tremor of the hand, may also be seen. (D) This sign is associated with the later stages of hepatic coma. Fetor hepaticus, a characteristic odor on the breath that smells like acetone, may sometimes be noted when the liver fails.
NEW QUESTION # 200
Succinylcholine chloride (Anectine) is ordered prior to electroconvulsive therapy treatment for depressed clients. The nurse explains that the purpose of the drug is to:
- A. Act as an anesthetic
- B. Relieve anxiety
- C. Reduce secretions
- D. Relax muscles
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) Succinylcholine chloride relaxes muscles and decreases the intensity of the seizure. (B) Succinylcholine chloride does not relieve anxiety. (C) Atropine is given to reduce secretions. (D) Thiamylal sodium (Surital) or other phenobarbital preparations are used as brief anesthetics.
NEW QUESTION # 201
A male client is diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. He has been on dialysis for several years. He is experiencing symptoms such as numbness of the lips, muscle weakness, carpopedal spasms, and wheezing.
Given the client's symptoms, nursing assessment would focus on:
- A. Detection of premature cataract formation
- B. Detection of hypocalcemia to prevent seizures
- C. Detection of tetany
- D. Evidence of depression
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) Assessment should focus on detection of tetany, which is the most common symptom of hypoparathyroidism. Left undetected and untreated, tetany resulting from hypocalcemia can progress to seizures. (B) Hypocalcemia is difficult to detect on nursing assessment alone. Abdominal cramping may be an indication of hypocalcemia, but laboratory data are required to confirm diagnosis. (C) Depression can be a symptom of hypoparathyroidism, but it is not definitive. (D) Premature cataract formation can occur, but it also is not specific to parathyroidism and poses no immediate danger to the client.
NEW QUESTION # 202
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