2024 Easy Success ISC SSCP Exam in First Try
Best SSCP Exam Dumps for the Preparation of Latest Exam Questions
The SSCP certification exam is ideal for those who want to pursue a career in information security or enhance their existing knowledge and skills. It is also suitable for IT professionals who want to expand their knowledge and expertise in security operations, risk management, and access controls. System Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP) certification provides a solid foundation in information security and validates the candidate's ability to secure critical information assets.
Target Audience
The potential candidates for the (ISC)2 SSCP certificate are the professionals with practical skills, proven technical knowledge, and hands-on security competence in various IT operational roles. These individuals can implement, administer, and monitor IT infrastructure based on the information security procedures and policies that ensure the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of data.
NEW QUESTION # 67
When preparing a business continuity plan, who of the following is responsible for identifying and prioritizing time-critical systems?
- A. Executive management staff
- B. BCP committee
- C. Senior business unit management
- D. Functional business units
Answer: C
Explanation:
Many elements of a BCP will address senior management, such as the statement of importance and priorities, the statement of organizational responsibility, and the statement of urgency and timing. Executive management staff initiates the project, gives final approval and gives ongoing support. The BCP committee directs the planning, implementation, and tests processes whereas functional business units participate in implementation and testing.
NEW QUESTION # 68
What is a limitation of TCP Wrappers?
- A. It stops packets before they reach the application layer, thus confusing some proxy servers.
- B. The hosts. access control system requires a complicated directory tree.
- C. It cannot control access to running UDP services.
- D. They are too expensive.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
TCP Wrappers can control when a UDP server starts but has little control afterwards because UDP packets can be sent randomly.
The following answers are incorrect:
It stops packets before they reach the application layer, thus confusing some proxy servers. Is incorrect because the TCP Wrapper acts as an ACL restricting packets so would not confuse a proxy server because the packets would not arrive and would not be a limitation.
The hosts. access control system requires a complicated directory tree. Is incorrect because a simple directory tree is involved.
They are too expensive. Is incorrect because TCP Wrapper is considered open source with a BSD licensing scheme.
NEW QUESTION # 69
When backing up an applications system's data, which of the following is a key question to be answered first?
- A. When to make backups
- B. What records to backup
- C. How to store backups
- D. Where to keep backups
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
It is critical that a determination be made of WHAT data is important and should be retained and protected.
Without determining the data to be backed up, the potential for error increases. A record or file could be vital and yet not included in a backup routine. Alternatively, temporary or insignificant files could be included in a backup routine unnecessarily.
The following answers were incorrect:
When to make backups Although it is important to consider schedules for backups, this is done after the decisions are made of what should be included in the backup routine.
Where to keep backups The location of storing backup copies of data (Such as tapes, on-line backups, etc) should be made after determining what should be included in the backup routine and the method to store the backup.
How to store backups The backup methodology should be considered after determining what data should be included in the backup routine.
NEW QUESTION # 70
What can be defined as an instance of two different keys generating the same ciphertext from the same plaintext?
- A. Hashing
- B. Ciphertext collision
- C. Key collision
- D. Key clustering
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Key clustering happens when a plaintext message generates identical ciphertext messages using the same transformation algorithm, but with different keys.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 130).
NEW QUESTION # 71
The concept of best effort delivery is best associated with?
- A. RSVP
- B. IP
- C. HTTP
- D. TCP
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Internet Protocol (IP) is a data-oriented protocol used for communicating data across a packet-switched internetwork. IP provides an unreliable service (i.e., best effort delivery).
This means that the network makes no guarantees about the packet.
Low-level connectionless protocols such as DDP (under Appletalk) and IP usually provide best- effort delivery of data.
Best-effort delivery means that the protocol attempts to deliver any packets that meet certain requirements, such as containing a valid destination address, but the protocol does not inform the sender when it is unable to deliver the data, nor does it attempt to recover from error conditions and data loss.
Higher-level protocols such as TCP on the other hand, can provide reliable delivery of data.
Reliable delivery includes error checking and recovery from error or loss of data.
HTTP is the HyperText Transport Protocol used to establish connections to a web server and thus one of the higher level protocol using TCP to ensure delivery of all bytes between the client and the server. It was not a good choice according to the question presented.
Delivered Unreliably: IP is said to be an "unreliable protocol". That doesn't mean that one day your IP software will decide to go fishing rather than run your network. J It does mean that when datagrams are sent from device A to device B, device A just sends each one and then moves on to the next. IP doesn't keep track of the ones it sent. It does not provide reliability or service quality capabilities such as error protection for the data it sends (though it does on the IP header), flow control or retransmission of lost datagrams.
For this reason, IP is sometimes called a best-effort protocol. It does what it can to get data to where it needs to go, but "makes no guarantees" that the data will actually get there.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following are the steps usually followed in the development of documents such as security policy, standards and procedures?
- A. feasibility, development, approval, implementation, and integration.
- B. design, evaluation, approval, publication, and implementation.
- C. initiation, evaluation, development, approval, publication, implementation, and maintenance.
- D. design, development, publication, coding, and testing.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The common steps used the the development of security policy are initiation of the project, evaluation, development, approval, publication, implementation, and maintenance. The other choices listed are the phases of the software development life cycle and not the step used to develop ducuments such as Policies, Standards, etc...
Reference: TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, MICKI, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th Edition, Volume 3, 2002, Auerbach Publications.
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which of the following is a cryptographic protocol and infrastructure developed to send encrypted credit card numbers over the Internet?
- A. MONDEX
- B. Secure Electronic Transaction (SET)
- C. Secure Shell (SSH-2)
- D. Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol (S-HTTP)
Answer: B
Explanation:
SET was developed by a consortium including Visa and MasterCard.
Source: Harris, Shon, CISSP All In One Exam Guide, pages 668-669.
Mondex is a smart card electronic cash system owned by MasterCard.
SSH-2 is a secure, efficient, and portable version of SSH (Secure Shell) which is a secure
replacement for telnet.
Secure HTTP is a secure message-oriented communications protocol designed for use in
conjunction with HTTP. It is designed to coexist with HTTP's messaging model and to be
easily integrated with HTTP applications.
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following was developed as a simple mechanism for allowing simple network terminals to load their operating system from a server over the LAN?
- A. DNS
- B. DHCP
- C. BootP
- D. ARP
Answer: C
Explanation:
BootP was developed as a simple mechanism for allowing simple network terminals to load their operating system from a server over the LAN. Over time, it has expanded to allow centralized configuration of many aspects of a host's identity and behavior on the network. Note that DHCP, more complex, has replaced BootP over time. Source: STREBE, Matthew and PERKINS, Charles, Firewalls 24seven, Sybex 2000, Chapter 4: Sockets and Services from a Security Viewpoint.
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following is the most important consideration in locating an alternate computing facility during the development of a disaster recovery plan?
- A. It is close enough to serve its users.
- B. It is unlikely to be affected by the same disaster.
- C. It is convenient to airports and hotels.
- D. It is close enough to become operational quickly.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
You do not want the alternate or recovery site located in close proximity to the original site because the same event that create the situation in the first place might very well impact that site also.
From NIST: "The fixed site should be in a geographic area that is unlikely to be negatively affected by the same disaster event (e.g., weather-related impacts or power grid failure) as the organization's primary site.
The following answers are incorrect:
It is close enough to become operational quickly. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. You'd want the alternate site to be close but if it is too close the same event could impact that site as well.
It is close enough to serve its users. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. You'd want the alternate site to be close to users if applicable, but if it is too close the same event could impact that site as well It is convenient to airports and hotels. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer, it is more important that the same event does not impact the alternate site then convenience.
References:
OIG CBK Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Planning (pages 368 - 369) NIST document 800-34 pg 21
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following remote access authentication systems is the most robust?
- A. RADIUS
- B. PAP
- C. TACACS+
- D. TACACS
Answer: C
Explanation:
TACACS+ is a proprietary Cisco enhancement to TACACS and is more robust than RADIUS.
PAP is not a remote access authentication system but a remote node security protocol.
NEW QUESTION # 77
What happens if this registry value is set to 1? HKLM\System\CurrentControlSet\Control\Lsa\CrashonAuditFail
- A. No such registry key exists
- B. System will overwrite logs
- C. System will crash
- D. System will perform a shutdown if maximum log size is reached
- E. System will continue operations as normal
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 78
After a company is out of an emergency state, what should be moved back to the original site first?
- A. Executives
- B. IT support staff
- C. Least critical components
- D. Most critical components
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
This will expose any weaknesses in the plan and ensure the primary site has been properly repaired before moving back. Moving critical assets first may induce a second disaster if the primary site has not been repaired properly.
The first group to go back would test items such as connectivity, HVAC, power, water, improper procedures, and/or steps that has been overlooked or not done properly. By moving these first, and fixing any problems identified, the critical operations of the company are not negatively affected.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 9:
Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (page 621).
NEW QUESTION # 79
Risk reduction in a system development life-cycle should be applied:
- A. Mostly to the development phase.
- B. Equally to all phases.
- C. Mostly to the initiation phase.
- D. Mostly to the disposal phase.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk is defined as the combination of the probability that a particular threat source will exploit, or trigger, a particular information system vulnerability and the resulting mission impact should this occur. Previously, risk avoidance was a common IT security goal. That changed as the nature of the risk became better understood. Today, it is recognized that elimination of all risk is not cost-effective. A cost-benefit analysis should be conducted for each proposed control. In some cases, the benefits of a more secure system may not justify the direct and indirect costs. Benefits include more than just prevention of monetary loss; for example, controls may be essential for maintaining public trust and confidence. Direct costs include the cost of purchasing and installing a given technology; indirect costs include decreased system performance and additional training. The goal is to enhance mission/business capabilities by managing mission/business risk to an acceptable level.
Source: STONEBURNER, Gary & al, National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication 800-27, Engineering Principles for Information Technology Security (A Baseline for Achieving Security), June 2001 (page 8).
NEW QUESTION # 80
What is the 802.11 standard related to?
- A. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
- B. Packet-switching technology
- C. The OSI/ISO model
- D. Wireless network communications
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
The 802.11 standard outlines how wireless clients and APs communicate, lays out the specifications of their interfaces, dictates how signal transmission should take place, and describes how authentication, association, and security should be implemeted.
The following answers are incorrect:
Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) Public Key Infrastructure is a supporting infrastructure to manage public keys. It is not part of the IEEE 802 Working Group standard.
Packet-switching technology A packet-switching technology is not included in the IEEE 802 Working Group standard. It is a technology where-in messages are broken up into packets, which then travel along different routes to the destination.
The OSI/ISO model The Open System Interconnect model is a sevel-layer model defined as an international standard describing network communications.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Source: Shon Harris - "All-in-One CISSP Exam Guide" Fourth Edition; Chapter 7 - Telecommunications and Network Security: pg. 624.
802.11 refers to a family of specifications developed by the IEEE for Wireless LAN technology. 802.11 specifies an over-the-air interface between a wireless client and a base station or between two wireless clients.
The IEEE accepted the specification in 1997. There are several specifications in the 802.11 family:
802.11 # applies to wireless LANs and provides 1 or 2 Mbps transmission in the 2.4 GHz band using either frequency hopping spread spectrum (FHSS) or direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS).
802.11a # an extension to 802.11 that applies to wireless LANs and provides up to 54 Mbps in the 5GHz band. 802.11a uses an orthogonal frequency division multiplexing encoding scheme rather than FHSS or DSSS.
802.11b (also referred to as 802.11 High Rate or Wi-Fi) # an extension to 802.11 that applies to wireless LANS and provides 11 Mbps transmission (with a fallback to 5.5, 2 and 1 Mbps) in the 2.4 GHz band. 802.11b uses only DSSS. 802.11b was a 1999 ratification to the original 802.11 standard, allowing wireless functionality comparable to Ethernet.
802.11g # applies to wireless LANs and provides 20+ Mbps in the 2.4 GHz band.
Source: 802.11 Planet's web site.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Valuable paper insurance coverage does not cover damage to which of the following?
- A. Manuscripts
- B. Money and Securities
- C. Records
- D. Inscribed, printed and Written documents
Answer: B
Explanation:
All businesses are driven by records. Even in today's electronic society businesses generate mountains of critical documents everyday. Invoices, client lists, calendars, contracts, files, medical records, and innumerable other records are generated every day.
Stop and ask yourself what happens if your business lost those documents today.
Valuable papers business insurance coverage provides coverage to your business in case of a loss of vital records. Over the years policy language has evolved to include a number of different types of records. Generally, the policy will cover "written, printed, or otherwise inscribed documents and records, including books, maps, films, drawings, abstracts, deeds, mortgages, and manuscripts." But, read the policy coverage carefully. The policy language typically "does not mean "money" or "securities," converted data,programs or instructions used in your data processing operations, including the materials on which the data is recorded." The coverage is often included as a part of property insurance or as part of a small business owner policy. For example, a small business owner policy includes in many cases valuable papers coverage up to $25,000.
It is important to realize what the coverage actually entails and, even more critical, to analyze your business to determine what it would cost to replace records.
The coverage pays for the loss of vital papers and the cost to replace the records up to the limit of the insurance and after application of any deductible. For example, the insurer will pay to have waterlogged papers dried and reproduced (remember, fires are put out by water and the fire department does not stop to remove your book keeping records). The insurer may cover temporary storage or the cost of moving records to avoid a loss.
For some businesses, losing customer lists, some business records, and contracts, can mean the expense and trouble of having to recreate those documents, but is relatively easy and a low level risk and loss. Larger businesses and especially professionals (lawyers, accountants, doctors) are in an entirely separate category and the cost of replacement of documents is much higher.
Consider, in analyzing your business and potential risk, what it would actually cost to reproduce your critical business records. Would you need to hire temporary personnel? How many hours of productivity would go into replacing the records? Would you need to obtain originals? Would original work need to be recreated (for example, home inspectors, surveyors, cartographers)?
Often when a business owner considers the actual cost related to the reproduction of records, the owner quickly realizes that their business insurance policy limits for valuable papers coverage is woefully inadequate.
Insurers (and your insurance professional)will often suggest higher coverages for valuable papers. The extra premium is often worth the cost and should be considered.
Finally, most policies will require records to be protected. You need to review your declarations pages and speak with your insurer to determine what is required. Some insurers may offer discounted coverage if there is a document retention and back up plan in place and followed.
There are professional organizations that can assist your business in designing a records management policy to lower the risk (and your premiums). For example, ARMA International has been around since 1955 and its members consist of some of the top document retention and storage companies.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which of the following choices describe a condition when RAM and Secondary storage are used together?
- A. Virtual storage
- B. Real storage
- C. Secondary storage
- D. Primary storage
Answer: A
Explanation:
Virtual storage a service provided by the operating system where it uses a combination of RAM and disk storage to simulate a much larger address space than is actually present. Infrequently used portions of memory are paged out by being written to secondary storage and paged back in when required by a running program.
Most OS's have the ability to simulate having more main memory than is physically available in the system. This is done by storing part of the data on secondary storage, such as a disk. This can be considered a virtual page. If the data requested by the system is not currently in main memory, a page fault is taken. This condition triggers the OS handler. If the virtual address is a valid one, the OS will locate the physical page, put the right information in that page, update the translation table, and then try the request again. Some other page might be swapped out to make room. Each process may have its own separate virtual address space along with its own mappings and protections.
The following are incorrect answers:
Primary storage is incorrect. Primary storage refers to the combination of RAM, cache and the processor registers. Primary Storage The data waits for processing by the processors, it sits in a staging area called primary storage. Whether implemented as memory, cache, or registers (part of the CPU), and regardless of its location, primary storage stores data that has a high probability of being requested by the CPU, so it is usually faster than long-term, secondary storage. The location where data is stored is denoted by its physical memory address. This memory register identifier remains constant and is independent of the value stored there. Some examples of primary storage devices include random-access memory (RAM), synchronous dynamic random- access memory (SDRAM), and read-only memory (ROM). RAM is volatile, that is, when the system shuts down, it flushes the data in RAM although recent research has shown that data may still be retrievable. Contrast this Secondary storage is incorrect. Secondary storage holds data not currently being used by the CPU and is used when data must be stored for an extended period of time using high-capacity, nonvolatile storage. Secondary storage includes disk, floppies, CD's, tape, etc. While secondary storage includes basically anything different from primary storage, virtual memory's use of secondary storage is usually confined to high-speed disk storage.
Real storage is incorrect. Real storage is another word for primary storage and distinguishes physical memory from virtual memory.
Exam A
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following access methods is used by Ethernet?
- A. FIFO.
- B. CSU/DSU.
- C. TCP/IP.
- D. CSMA/CD.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
Ethernet uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) to minimize the effect of broadcast collisions.
The following answers are incorrect:
CSU/DSU Is incorrect because Channel Service Unit/Digital Service Unit(CSU/DSU) is a digital interface normally used to connect a router to a digital circuit.
TCP/IP Is incorrect because Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol(TCP/IP) is a network protocol not an access method.
FIFO Is incorrect as it is a distractor. First In, First Out (FIFO) is typically a processing methodology in which first come, first served.
Ethernet is a frame based network technology.
References:
OIG CBK Telecommunications and Network Security (pages 437 - 438)
Wikipedia http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/FIFO
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following will a Business Impact Analysis NOT identify?
- A. The outage time that can be tolerated by the enterprise as a result of a disaster.
- B. Systems critical to the survival of the enterprise.
- C. Areas that would suffer the greatest financial or operational loss in the event of a disaster.
- D. The names of individuals to be contacted during a disaster.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following describes the major disadvantage of many Single Sign-On (SSO) implementations?
- A. Once a user obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, he has to logout from all other systems
- B. Once a user obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, they only need to logon to some applications.
- C. Once an individual obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, they have access to all resources within the environment that the account has access to.
- D. The initial logon process is cumbersome to discourage potential intruders.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Single Sign-On is a distrubuted Access Control methodology where an individual only has to authenticate once and would have access to all primary and secondary network domains. The individual would not be required to re-authenticate when they needed additional resources. The security issue that this creates is if a fraudster is able to compromise those credential they too would have access to all the resources that account has access to.
All the other answers are incorrect as they are distractors.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Tripwire is a ___________________
- A. Log analyzer
- B. File Integrity Checker
- C. Port Scanner
- D. Digital Certificate Company
- E. Polymorphic virus
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 87
When an outgoing request is made on a port number greater than 1023, this type of firewall creates an ACL to allow the incoming reply on that port to pass:
- A. Application level proxy
- B. CIrcuit level proxy
- C. Dynamic packet filtering
- D. packet filtering
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
The dynamic packet filtering firewall is able to create ACL's on the fly to allow replies on dynamic ports (higher than 1023).
Packet filtering is incorrect. The packet filtering firewall usually requires that the dynamic ports be left open as a group in order to handle this situiation.
Circuit level proxy is incorrect. The circuit level proxy builds a conduit between the trusted and untrusted hosts and does not work by dynamically creating ACL's.
Application level proxy is incorrect. The application level proxy "proxies" for the trusted host in its communications with the untrusted host. It does not dynamically create ACL's to control traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following does not address Database Management Systems (DBMS) Security?
- A. Cell suppression
- B. Perturbation
- C. Partitioning
- D. Padded cells
Answer: D
Explanation:
Padded cells complement Intrusion Detection Systems (IDSs) and are not related to DBMS security. Padded cells are simulated environments to which IDSs seamlessly transfer detected attackers and are designed to convince an attacker that the attack is going according to the plan. Cell suppression is a technique used against inference attacks by not revealing information in the case where a statistical query produces a very small result set. Perturbation also addresses inference attacks but involves making minor modifications to the results to a query. Partitioning involves splitting a database into two or more physical or logical parts; especially relevant for multilevel secure databases.
Source: LaROSA, Jeanette (domain leader), Application and System Development Security CISSP Open Study Guide, version 3.0, January 2002.
NEW QUESTION # 89
......
Incident Response & Recovery (13%):
- Understanding & Supporting Forensic Investigations – It focuses on ethical and legal principles, and evidence handling;
- Understanding & Supporting Business Continuity Plan & Disaster Recovery Plan Activities – You should have knowledge of testing and drill, restoration planning alternative or interim processing strategies, redundancy and backup implementation, and emergency response plans & procedures.
- Supporting the Incident Lifecycle – This subtopic covers preparation, containment, recovery, eradication, detection, analysis, & escalation, and lessons learned & the implementation of new countermeasures;
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